Cogent and insightful. There is a huge lurking question which has not been asked which
is the following: It has been demonstrated beyond a doubt that there is a genetic predisposition
to the condition of schizophrenia. This is frequently used to justify the disease centred-model.
However one has to interpret the finding. That genes are involved does not mean there is a specific
neuro-chemcial problem as the way genes express themselves neurologically are likely so complex
that the symptoms could be the result of functional psychological processes which nevertheless have a
genetic underpinning. Like a kitchen knife which is slightly weaker but will not break if used correctly- hence
the association of childhood trauma and the condition.
So following the gist of the argument, how does one make sense of the role of genes in the drug-centred model?
Wonderful, thank you!
Cogent and insightful. There is a huge lurking question which has not been asked which
is the following: It has been demonstrated beyond a doubt that there is a genetic predisposition
to the condition of schizophrenia. This is frequently used to justify the disease centred-model.
However one has to interpret the finding. That genes are involved does not mean there is a specific
neuro-chemcial problem as the way genes express themselves neurologically are likely so complex
that the symptoms could be the result of functional psychological processes which nevertheless have a
genetic underpinning. Like a kitchen knife which is slightly weaker but will not break if used correctly- hence
the association of childhood trauma and the condition.
So following the gist of the argument, how does one make sense of the role of genes in the drug-centred model?
Thanks
Hi Alex,
On what basis do you propose that a genetic predisposition to schizphrenia has been demonstrated beyond a doubt?
I believe thus us a very important bpol by Joanna Moncreiff, Co Chairperson of the Critical Psychiatry Network
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Thank you for telling the TruthInMedicine